/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
Are there any instances of European aristocrats leaving significant money or land to their servants, thus elevating them to the middle or upper class?
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When did Police go from being used as union busters to having one of the most powerful labor unions?
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US Courts run on precedent. Has this always been the case? Have there been any major pushes to reduce the importance of precedent in the legal system?
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